My understanding of a logical formula being valid is that it concludes something, for example:
$[(A \rightarrow B) \wedge (B \rightarrow C)] \rightarrow [A \rightarrow C]$ is logically valid. (I may be mixing this up with rule of inference)
I'm trying to understand if a method I found is able to determine if a formula is logically valid. Using elementary algebra it is possible to establish the following relations
$a \wedge b = ab \qquad $and $\qquad ¬a = 1-a$
From these it follows that
$a \rightarrow b = 1-a+ab$
where $+$ and $\times$ are being used in the everyday sense.
The method:
Using the above relations it is possible to convert the original statement into elementary algebra.
$[(A \rightarrow B) \wedge (B \rightarrow C)] \rightarrow [A \rightarrow C]$
Evaluating the 'outermost' implication yields:
$1-[(A \rightarrow B) \wedge (B \rightarrow C)] + [(A \rightarrow B) \wedge (B \rightarrow C)][A \rightarrow C]$
Evaluating the next implications yields
$1-[(1-a+ab) \wedge (1-b+bc)] + [(1-a+ab) \wedge (1-b+bc)][1-a+ac]$
Evaluating the ANDs yields
$1-[(1-a+ab)(1-b+bc)] + [(1-a+ab)(1-b+bc)][1-a+ac]$
Expanding the parentheses gives
$1-[1-a-b+ab+bc] + [1-a-b+ab+bc][1-a+ac]$
Expanding the brackets gives
$1 - [1-a-b+ab+bc] + [1-a-b+ab+bc]$
Which simplifies to
$1$
I am interpreting this 1 as saying that the original formula was logically valid. Is this a correct interpretation? If not, what is this $1$ telling me? I know that it means that for all possible inputs into the logical expression, the expression holds, does this imply validity?
Yes.
A valid statement is a tautology.
That is that it is valued as true (ie $1$) for all interpretations of its literals.