I have a silly question about the pullback of $ 1 $-forms. Take two smooth manifolds $ M $ and $ N $ and some smooth map $ F\colon M\to N $ between them. Take some $ 1 $-form $ \eta $ on $ N $. Suppose that with respect to some coordinates $ (y^1,\dots,y^m) $ on an open subset $ V $ of $ N $ we can write $$ \eta{\restriction_V} = \sum_{i = 1}^m \eta_i\mathrm dy^i $$ for some smooth functions $ \eta_1,\dots,\eta_m\colon V\to \mathbb R $.
Then $$ F^*\eta{\restriction_{F^{-1}(V)}} = \sum_{i = 1}^m (\eta_i\circ F)\,\mathrm d(y^i\circ F) $$ by the properties of the pullback map $ F^*\colon \Omega_N^1(V)\to \Omega_M^1(F^{-1}(V)) $.
Now, I was playing with the standard example $$ \eta = \frac{x\,\mathrm dy - y\,\mathrm dx}{x^2 + y^2} $$ on the manifold $ X = \mathbb R^2\setminus\{\text{non positive $ x $ semi-axis}\} $. According to Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifolds Example 11.28, one can find the polar coordinate expression of $ \eta $ simply by computing the pullback $$ \eta = \mathrm{id}_X^*(\eta) $$ under the assumption that "the coordinates on the domain of $ \mathrm{id}_X $ are polar, and the coordinates on the codomain of $ \mathrm{id}_X $ are Cartesian" (semi-quoe from Lee's book). It's not clear to me what it means.
If I compute $ \mathrm{id}_X^*(\eta) $ I obtain (see above) $$ \mathrm{id}_X^*(\eta) = \Bigl(\frac{x}{x^2 + x^2}\circ \mathrm{id}_X\Bigr)\,\mathrm d(y\circ \mathrm{id}_X) - \Bigl(\frac{y}{x^2 + x^2}\circ \mathrm{id}_X\Bigr)\,\mathrm d(x\circ \mathrm{id}_X) $$ which is different from the result $$ \mathrm{id}_X^*(\eta) = \Bigl(\frac{\cos\theta}{r}\Bigr)\,\mathrm d(r\sin\theta) - \Bigl(\frac{\sin\theta}{r}\Bigr)\,\mathrm d(r\cos\theta) = \dots $$ advocated by Lee.
What am I missing?
You have the $1-$form
$$\omega=\frac{x\,dy+ y \, dx}{x^2+y^2}.$$
Use $x=r \cos \theta, y = r \sin \theta, x^2+y^2=r^2$, so you have
\begin{align} \omega&=\frac{x\,dy+ y \, dx}{x^2+y^2}\\ &=\frac{r \cos\theta\, d(r \sin \theta)+r \sin \theta \, d(r \cos \theta)}{r^2}\\ &=\frac{2\cos\theta\sin\theta\, dr+r(\cos^2\theta-\sin^2\theta)\,d\theta}{r} \end{align}
hope this helps!! And of course you can use the trig identity for $2\cos\theta\sin\theta$..and for $d($something$)$ you apply product rule. Lee does an example of swapping to polar I believe in chapter 14 and he does what I did.