Let $B$ be a category. There is a 2-monad on the slice 2-category $\mathsf{Cat}/B$, which sends $E \overset{p}{\to} B$ to the slice category $B \downarrow p$. I'm told that an algebra for this monad is a Grothendieck fibration over $B$ equipped with a splitting, whereas a pseudoalgebra is a Grothendieck fibration equippped with a cleavage. Everywhere I can find this stated in the literature, this fact is regarded as "obvious" or "an easy exercise". I'm having trouble with the exercise, even in the strict case.
An algebra for this monad will give the structure of a "transport" functor $\mathrm{trans}: B \downarrow p \to E$, $b \overset f \to p(e) \mapsto \mathrm{trans}_f(e)$. Unitality and associativity make $\mathrm{trans}$ look like a splitting of a Grothendieck fibration. The cartesian lift of $b \overset f \to p(e)$ ought to be $\mathrm{trans}_f(e)$, with the cartesian map $\mathrm{trans}_f(e) \to e = \mathrm{trans}_1(e)$ obtained by applying $\mathrm{trans}$ to the following square:
$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} b @>{f}>> p(e)\\ @V{f}VV @VV{p(1)}V\\ pe @>>{1}> p(e) \end{CD}$
regarded as a morphism in $B \downarrow p$ from the top row to the bottom row. Then we can construct lifts which should witness the universal property of this cartesian lift as follows. If $b' \overset \beta \to b$ is a morphism in $B$ and $e' \overset \varepsilon \to e$ is a morphism in $E$ such that $p(\varepsilon) = f \circ \beta$, then we apply $\mathrm{trans}$ to the square
$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} pe' @>{1}>> p(e')\\ @V{\beta}VV @VV{p(\varepsilon)}V\\ b @>>{f}> p(e) \end{CD}$
regarded as a morphism in $B \downarrow p$ from the top row to the bottom row. This produces a map $e' = \mathrm{trans}_1(e') \to \mathrm{trans}_f(e)$ lying over $\beta$. Composing the two above squares and applying functoriality and unitality of $\mathrm{trans}$ shows that we have in fact constructed a factorization as expected from the universal property of the cartesian lift constructed above.
But I don't see why this factorization is unique, as required by the universal property of a cartesian lift. Why is this so?
Probably this should follow from the general theory of colax-idempotent 2-monads, but I'm not sure how. And anyway, this would simply push back the difficulty to showing that this 2-monad is colax-idempotent.
Well, I eventually figured this out, though it took me longer than I would have liked! It's a bit disorienting working with this 2-monad because you end up thinking in terms of commuting squares, and deciding when to work with the "vertical composition" of the actual categories and the "horizontal composition" of the monad must take some experience. I eventually resorted to trying to write down a minimal counterexample, and then seeing what went wrong!
Since I haven't been able to find this written down anywhere, here's one way to see that the factorizations constructed above are unique, exhibiting $\mathrm{trans}_f(e)$ as a cocartesian lift of $f$.
Notation:
I'm not sure what a good systematic notation would be.
We want to show that if $g,g': e' \to f^\ast e$ have the property that $pg = pg'$ and $f^\ast \circ g = f^\ast \circ g'$, then $g = g'$.
Step 1: (This step is not really necessary, without it just make a few notational tweaks to the next step.) It suffices to show this in the case where $g,g'$ are vertical, i.e. $pg = pg' = 1_b$.
For we could always replace $f$ with $f \circ pg$, $f^\ast$ with $(f \circ pg)^\ast$, and $g,g'$ with their canonical factorizations $\bar g, \bar g'$ through $(f \circ pg)^\ast$. The reduction follows because $(f \circ pg)^\ast = (pg)^\ast \circ f^\ast$ and $g = (pg)^\ast \circ \bar g$, $g' = (pg)^\ast \circ \bar g'$.
Step 2: It suffices to show that
$(\ast) \qquad \mathrm{trans}\big((1_b, f^\ast): \big(b \overset 1 \to p(f^\ast e) \big) \to \big( b \overset f \to p(e)\big)\big) = 1_{f^\ast e}$.
For we have $g = \mathrm{trans}\big((1_b,g): \big(b \overset 1 \to p(e')\big) \to \big(b \overset 1 \to p(f^\ast e)\big)\big)$, and similarly for $g'$. If $(\ast)$ holds, then we can postcopmose with $1_{f^\ast e}$, substitute using $(\ast)$, and by functoriality of $\mathrm{trans}$, we have $g = \mathrm{trans}\big((1_b,f^\ast \circ g): \big(b \overset 1 \to p(e')\big) \to \big(b \overset 1 \to p(f^\ast e)\big)\big)$ and a similar equation for $g'$. Now the result follows since $f^\ast \circ g = f^\ast \circ g'$.
Step 3: $(\ast)$ holds.
This follows by applying the associativity property of the algebra $\mathrm{trans}$ to the diagram
$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} b @>{1}>> b @>{f}>> p(e) \\ @V{1}VV @VV{f}V @VV{p(1)}V \\ b @>>{f}> pe @>{1}>> p(e) \end{CD}$
viewed as a morphism in $B \downarrow (B \downarrow p)$ from the top row to the bottom.