There is a sentence:
Let $p$ and $q$ be different odd primes, and consider the finite field $F$ with $q^{p-1}$ elements. Its prime field is $\mathbb{Z}_q$, whence $qa=0$ for any $a\in F$.
Why is it so? Thank you.
There is a sentence:
Let $p$ and $q$ be different odd primes, and consider the finite field $F$ with $q^{p-1}$ elements. Its prime field is $\mathbb{Z}_q$, whence $qa=0$ for any $a\in F$.
Why is it so? Thank you.
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.