I have been stuck with this question for… quite sometime. Implications are mentioned after my question.
Is it true that if two real polynomials $P(x), Q(x)$, have their product equal to a 0-1 polynomial (e.g. $1+x+x^5+x^{42}$), and their coefficients are assumed to be non-negative, and are both monic, then these coefficients are also 0's and 1's?
I can prove it when the product is a reciprocal polynomial (a textbook case is $1+x+x^2+x^3+\cdots+x^n$), but I cannot manage to drop this condition.
Beware that there may exist factors with negative coefficients, the assumption is that both $P, Q$ do not.
This would explain why Linear Programming in the real fields seems to always find 0-1 factorizations in some tiling problems in dim. 1 (I know this has been recently disproved in higher dimension). This is a highly rewarding occurrence but it would be nice to understand why or at least to prove it…
Observation:
Suppose that $P(x)Q(x) = M(x)$, where $M$ is a $0-1$ polynomial and $P$, $Q$ are polynomials with non-negative coefficients as in your question. Define the following property of this product:
Property 1: For each term ($x^n$ say) in $M$, there is unique pair of terms in $P$ and $Q$ which uniquely multiply together to make this term.
Firstly, it seems that the conjecture is easy to prove with the assumption that property 1 holds.
Secondly, if the conjecture does hold (so that $P$ and $Q$ are necessarily both 0-1) then property 1 must hold for the product (i.e. every product).