I am trying to understand whether the following problem is a convex optimization problem:
\begin{align} \min 1 \\ s.t. \\ & -x \le 0 \\ & -y \le 0 \\ & -xy \le 0, \end{align}
The objective is constant, hence it is a convex function. $-x$ and $-y$ are linear hence they are convex functions. However, $-xy$ is neither convex nor concave.
According to Boyd's book on convex optimization, the definition of a convex optimization (Equation (1.8) in the book) requires that the objective and all functions above on the lhs of each inequality will all be convex. So it appears that the above is not a convex optimization.
However, it seems to me that the feasible domain of the above problem is: \begin{align} & x \ge 0 \\ & y \ge 0, \\ \end{align} which is a convex domain, hence intuitively, this should be a convex problem as it minimizes a convex objective over a convex domain.
This is a matter of definitions. Let us consider the problem \begin{align*} \text{Minimize} \quad & f(x) \\ \text{such that} \quad & g(x) \le 0. \end{align*} Here, $f : \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}$, $g : \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^m$ and the inequality constraint $g(x) \le 0$ is considered coefficient-wise.
The feasible set is \begin{equation*} \Omega = \{ x \in \mathbb{R}^n \mid g(x) \le 0\}. \end{equation*}
Now, there are two notions of convexity for the above problem:
It is easy to see that the first notion implies the second one but note vice-versa (see your example).
However, it is more reasonable to use the first definition, since we are working explicitly with the functions $g$.