Let $A$ be any Abelian group. Take $A^\star:=\operatorname{Hom}(A,\Bbb{Q}/\Bbb{Z})$ be the dual of $A$. Then is $A=0$ equivalent to $A^\star=0$?
2026-03-27 16:26:22.1774628782
The dual for Abelian group on Q/Z
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Yes. Note that $\mathbb Q / \mathbb Z$ is a divisible group, thus an injective object in the category of abelian groups, thus any homomorphism into it can be lifted from subgroups.
Take any $x\in A$. If it has finite order $n$, define $f(x)={1\over n}$, otherwise define $f(x)$ to be any nonzero element of $\mathbb Q / \mathbb Z$. This defines a nonzero homomorphism $f: \langle x \rangle \rightarrow \mathbb Q / \mathbb Z$. By injectivity of $\mathbb Q / \mathbb Z$ this can be extended to a nonzero homomorphism $A \rightarrow \mathbb Q / \mathbb Z$. Thus, if $A$ is nonzero, $A^*$ is nonzero as well.