I want to know $H^1(K(\mu_p)/K,\mu_p)$ where $K$ is a number field.
Since $K(\mu_p)/K$ is cyclic, $H^1(K(\mu_p)/K,\mu_p)=H^{-1}(K(\mu_p)/K,\mu_p)$.
Using calculation, $H^{-1}(K(\mu_p)/K,\mu_p) =0$.
So, I hope to know if the question is true.
Q :"If $A$ is finite abelian group and if $G:=Aut(A)$, then $H^1(G,A)=0$."
This is false. Take $A=\Bbb Z/4\Bbb Z$. I claim $H^1(G;A)\cong\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$. If you don't believe my manual calculations below, here's one way to see that this couldn't possibly be zero:
$G\cong\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$ with generator $\gamma:A\cong A$, $1\mapsto3$.
$H^1(G;A)=0$ iff. every derivation is principal. I claim that $\psi:G\to A$, $\gamma\mapsto1$ is a derivation but is not principal.
Firstly, if it were principal then $1=\gamma(a)-a$ for some $a\in A$; however you can check that $\gamma(a)-a=0,2,0,2$ for $a=0,1,2,3$ so none of these options work. Therefore it remains to check $\psi$ is a derivation.
That is, we must check: $$\forall f,g\in G:\psi(f\circ g)=f(\psi(g))+\psi(f)$$When one of $f,g$ is the identity, this is trivial as $\psi(\mathrm{id}):=0$. Therefore the only nontrivial check is: $$\psi(\gamma\circ\gamma)\overset{?}{=}\gamma(\psi(\gamma))+\psi(\gamma)$$But the left hand side is zero and the right hand side is $\gamma(1)+1=3+1=0$, so it all works out.
There is another nonprincipal derivation $\psi':\gamma\mapsto3$ but in fact $\psi$ is homologous with $\psi'$. We conclude $H^1(G;A)\cong\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z\neq0$.