Suppose $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is a lipschitz continuous function. Let $(a , b)$ be an open interval. Is it true that $f((a , b)) = (f(a) , f(b))$?
2026-03-29 17:31:29.1774805489
The image of the interval $(a , b)$ under a lipschitz continuous function
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