It's common to see the Fermat Last Theorem being used to prove the irrationality of $\sqrt[n]{2}$. In fact, according this post, the said proof appeared in American Mathematical Monthly.
On the other hand, I have seen two objections on this approach: DanielLittlewood's comment here and BCnrd's comment here.
Since I'm not able to judge by myself, I'd like a definitive answer: Is this proof logically valid?
Edit
It seems the phrase "logically valid" is not appropriate for the context. In fact, I want to know if the proof is circular (as suggested in the linked comments).
The proof is logically valid. Even if Wiles' proof depends on $\sqrt[n] 2$ being irrational, this does not make the proof circular - just redundant. The reason is, the irrationality of $\sqrt[n] 2$ can be easily proven without resorting to Fermat's last theorem. Thus Wiles' proof would still hold without this proof of the irrationality of $\sqrt[n] 2$.
Concerning BCnrd's comment, it only points out that the irrationality of $\sqrt[n] 2$ is easily proven on the way to proving FLT.