I'm trying to prove that for any given real number $0<k<1$, $$\lim_{n\to \infty} (n+1)^k - n^k=0$$
It is easy to prove that if $k=\frac1m$ for some positive integer $m$, $$(n+1)^\frac 1m - n^\frac 1m\to0\quad \text{as }n\to\infty$$
simply using the following formula. $$(a-b)=(a^\frac 1m - b^\frac1m)(a^\frac{m-1}m + a^\frac{m-2}m b^\frac 1m+....+b^\frac {m-1} m)$$ And letting $a=\alpha^N$, $b=\beta^N$ the limit $\lim_{n\to \infty} (n+1)^k - n^k$ goes $0$ for any rational number $0<k=\frac Nm<1$.
However, for any given real number, $\pi$ to say, how can I even evaluate limit like this? $$\lim_{n\to \infty} (n+1)^\frac 1\pi - n^\frac 1\pi$$
I don't know how to deal with irrational numbers at all. Any advice would be a great help. Thank you in advance.
Because $$(n+1)^k-n^k=n^k\left(\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^k-1\right)<n^k\left(\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)-1\right)=\frac{1}{n^{1-k}}\rightarrow0.$$