It is usual to show that a problem P is undecidable by showing that the halting problem reduces to P.
Is it the case that the halting problem is the mother of all undecidable problems in the sense that it reduces to any undecidable problem? If the answer is negative, can you show a (preferably simple) counterexample, i.e., an undecidable problem to which the halting problem does not reduce?
If I understand the question correctly, it is : "is the halting problem the simplest of all undecidable problems, in the sense that the knowledge of any other undecidable problem would be enough to solve the halting problem ?".
I would say the answer is both no and maybe. It is no in the sense that there are undecidable sets which cannot compute the halting problem. "almostall" proposed a nice non-constructive argument for that. It is also possible to construct such sets. In particular, there are non decidable computably enumerable sets (then decidable by the halting problem) but which cannot decide the halting problem (search "Post problem" and "priority method" on google).
Now for the "maybe", it is true that there is no natural example of such problems, and an attempt to formalize mathematically what is a 'natural example', in order to prove that the halting problem is the only one, has been made. I cite here a part of "There is no degree invariant half-jump" from Rod Downey, that emphasizes this phenomenon:
It might take us too far now to continue on what is the mathematical formalization of the question of the existence of a 'natural example' of undecidable problems, plus, I'm not a specialist on this anyway. But if you want to do some research, maybe you can look for Sacks question : "Is there a degree invariant solution to Post problem ?", which as far as I know is still open, at least in its general form.