Can someone please comment/elaborate on the statement:
"The normal distribution is a common model of randomness."
I would like to understand it more deeply.
Source:

Perhaps someone can point me to a theorem or proof supporting this statement.
So my question for this thread really comes down to:
If a process can be modeled well by a normal distribution, is this a necessary and sufficient condition for the process to be called "random"?
It's not a necessary condition. There are natural processes that are well modeled by other distributions such as the Poisson distribution for waiting times.
Some processes are naturally normal such as a random walk. Other processes converge to normality in the limit. For example, the average of many trials of a uniform distribution on an interval, is nearly normal.