In my lecture note, there is the following statement:
The number of 2-dimnesional subspaces in $F_2^3$ equal to the number of 1-dimnesional subspaces in $F_2^3$
Here, $F_2^3=F_2 \times F_2 \times F_2$ where $F_2=\{0,1\}$.
I am wondering, why this should be true? is there some theorems explain this? or this is just special case?
This is just an instance of a general result:
To see this, you can use the following to facts:
First, show that if two vector spaces over $F$ have the same dimension, then they have the same number of subspaces of each dimension.
Second, if $V$ is a vector space of dimension $n$, the rule which assigns to each subspace $S$ of $V$ its annihilator $S^\perp=\{\phi\in V^*:\phi(v)=0\;\forall v\in S\}$ which is a subspace of the dual space $V^*$, is a bijection between the set of subspaces of $V$ and the set of the subspaces of $V^*$, and $\dim S+\dim S^\perp=n$ for all subspaces $S\subseteq V$.