The following is a theorem of Conway's Functional Analysis: 
for the proof ($c\to a$), I think we can say: for $\lambda\in \sigma(a)\subset \Bbb R$, there is a character $h:C(\sigma(a))\to\Bbb C$ such that $\lambda=h(a)=|h(x)|^2$, so $\lambda\geq 0$ and $\sigma(a)\subset [0,\infty)$.
I think it's easier than Conway's way, but I'm not sure that it's correct or not. Please check it. Thanks in advance.
No, it isn't correct, because you are trying to use "$|h(x)|$" without it having been defined.