Let $H=(H, m, \Delta, \mu, \epsilon, S)$ be a Hopf algebra. Then there is a property of antipde $S$: $$S(gh)=S(h)S(g)$$ where $g,h \in H$.
I have seen in some materials the proof of this property need the following properties: $S \star1= 1 \star S= \mu \circ \epsilon$. I want to know whether we could prove $S(gh)=S(h)S(g)$ using just $S \star 1= \mu \circ \epsilon$ or just $1\star S= \mu \circ \epsilon$?
I have seen here a proof, it seems do not use both properties, but I don't know why the place marked green holds.

The displayed proof above uses left-inverse in the first block of equations and right-inverse in the second. The green part follows by using right-inverses, namely: $$ x_{(1)}y_{(1)}S(y_{(2)})S(x_{(2)})=x_{(1)}\epsilon(y)S(x_{(2)})=\epsilon(y)x_{(1)}S(x_{(2)})=\epsilon(y)\epsilon(x)=\epsilon(xy)\,. $$ The proof uses both properties. Whether there exists a left Hopf algebra with a left antipode which is not an algebra antiendomorphism is an interesting question. Example 21 in "Left Hopf algebras, Green, Nichols, Taft, 1979" seems not to qualify. But I still doubt that it is true.
Further reading: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/332085/a-concrete-example-of-a-one-sided-hopf-algebra