It is clear to write $(-1)^{\frac{1}{3}}=-1$
What about $$(-1)^{\frac{2}{6}} $$ ? Is it $$(-1)^{\frac{2}{6}}=(-1^2)^{\frac{1}{6}}=1\\or ?\\(-1)^{\frac{2}{6}}=(-1)^{\frac{1}{3}}$$ with respect to $$\mathbb{Q}=\left\{\frac{m}{n}|m,n \in \mathbb{Z} ,n\neq0 ,(m,n)=1\right\}$$ $$\frac{2}{6} \text {is not in} \mathbb{Q}$$ I am sorry to ask this question, but I get stuck on this ...and no result .
Thanks in advance .
Since $\frac{2}{6} = \frac{1}{3}$, one must conclude that $$ (-1)^{\frac{2}{6}} = (-1)^{\frac{1}{3}} = -1.$$ In this case, the notation is unambiguous. That being said, there is (perhaps) something interesting going on here. What you have highlighted is that $a^{bc}$ is not always the same thing as $(a^b)^c$, and have given an example where this potential identity breaks down.
Do you think that you can determine sufficient conditions for $(a^b)^c$ to be equal to $a^{bc}$?