I read a comment in a text on functional analysis that the set $\{f\in C[0,1]:f(0)>0\}$ is a dense subset of $C[0,1]$ with respect to the norm $\|f\|:=\max\limits_{0\leqslant x\leqslant1}|f(x)|.$
I can't see why this should be true. For instance, couldn't I just take function $g\in C[0,1]$ such that $g(0)<0,$ making it impossible for a sequence $(f_n)_{n=1}^\infty$ such that $f_n(0)>0$ for all $n$ to tend to $g$? I don't see how any neighbourhood of $g$ could contain almost all $f_n$.
If someone could help explaining why this should be true I would be grateful. Thanks.
You are correct, the statement as it stands is wrong, for the reason you are suggesting.