We know the sum:
$$\sum\limits_{i=0}^\infty \frac{1}{(i!)} = e.$$
This makes me wonder about the sum:
$$S = \sum\limits_{i=0}^\infty \frac{1}{(i!)^2}.$$
It's clear that it converges and also that it's less than $e$ since all the terms are less than the first summation. But is there a closed form for it?
Numerically, it seems to be around $2.279$.
In general, one can define a function similar to the Riemann Zeta:
$$S(u) = \sum\limits_{i=0}^\infty \frac{1}{(i!)^u}$$
This will converge for all $u>0$. We know the closed form for $u=1$.
For large $u$, it'll just become $2$.
But I wonder if any other $u$ has a closed form. And if we wanted to extend it to the complex numbers and analytically continue it, what would we get for:
$$S(-1) = \sum\limits_{i=0}^\infty (i!)$$

The Bessel Clifford function is defined as (for $n=0$) $$C_0(z)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{z^k}{k!^2}$$So your sum is equivalent to the integral$$C_0(1)=\frac1{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}e^{2\cos\theta}d\theta=\frac1{\pi}\int_0^\pi e^{2\cos\theta}d\theta$$Which doesn't seem to be solvable.
Credit to @TymaGaidash for making me aware of this function.