Say if $A$ and $B$ are non empty closed subsets of $(X,d)$.
am I right in them saying that $A\cup B$ is also closed in $X$?
Say if $A$ and $B$ are non empty closed subsets of $(X,d)$.
am I right in them saying that $A\cup B$ is also closed in $X$?
On
For brevity, for a set $S$ I'll write $X \backslash S$ as $S^C$. $A$ and $B$ are closed in the metric space $X$. So $A^C$ and $B^C$ are open
De Morgan's law tells us that $(A \cup B)^C = (A^C \cap B^C) $. So $A \cup B$ is the complement of an open set, and is therefore closed.
This can easily be generalised to see the following: The union of finitely many closed sets is closed
$A^c, B^c$ are open ($c$ for complement).
$A^c \cap B^c$ is open (easy to prove).
Their complement
$(A^c \cap B^c)^c = (A\cup B)$
is closed.
Used: $(D^c)^c =D, D=A,B$, and
De Morgan's law.