It is known that "If $\{x_n\}$ is a sequence in a real Hilbert space $H$ satisfying $$ \langle x_n, x_m\rangle =0 \quad\forall n\ne m, $$ then $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}x_n$ is convergent if and only if $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\|x_n\|^2$ is convergent". I would like to know if $H$ is an inner product space (pre-Hilbert space) the above statement is still true?
2026-04-30 01:08:27.1777511307
On
Theorem about orthogonal system in inner product space.
307 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail At
2
There are 2 best solutions below
1
On
If $\{x_n\}$ is an orthonormal system then $\|x_n\|=1$ for all $n$, so that $\sum\|x_n\|$ does not converge.
I think that what you want is the following result:
Let $X$ be a normed space with norm $\|\,\cdot\,\|$ (in particular it can be a pre-Hilbert space.) $X$ is complete if and only if for every $\{x_n\}\subset X$ $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty\|x_n\|<\infty\implies \sum_{n=1}^\infty x_n\text{ converges.} $$
No. Take the subspace $l^2_{\text{fin}}(\mathbb R)$ of $l^2(\mathbb R)$ of all real-valued sequences with only finitely many nonzero entries. $l^2_{\text{fin}}(\mathbb R)$ is a pre-Hilbert space with the induced inner product and the sequences $\delta_{i,j}$ whose only nonzero entry is $\delta_{i,i} = 1$ form an orthonormal system $\{ \delta_{i,j}\} \in l^2_{\text{fin}}(\mathbb R)$ but obviously $\sum_i 2^{-i} \delta_{i,j} \not \in l^2_{\text{fin}}(\mathbb R)$.