(i) For $x_1 < x < x_2$
we have
$$ \frac{f(x)-f(x_1)}{(x-x_1)} \le \frac{f(x_2)-f(x)}{(x_2-x)} \tag{1} $$
and
(ii) For every $x_1$ and $x_2$ in $I$ and every $λ: 0 < \lambda < 1$
we have
$$ f(\lambda x_1+(1-\lambda)x_2)\le \lambda f(x_1)+(1-\lambda)f(x_2)\tag{2} $$
Show that $(1)\implies(2)$
I have tried cross-multiplying the denominators in $(1)$ but I'm completely stuck.


After the cross multiplication, we have $(x_2-x_1)f(x)\leq(x_2-x)f(x_1)+(x-x_1)f(x_2)$
Hint: any number $x\in [x_1,x_2]$ can be written in the form $\lambda x_1+ (1-\lambda) x_2$, with $\lambda\in (0,1)$. I'm leaving this unproven as an exercise!
After that, our inequality becomes :$(x_2-x_1)f(x)\leq \lambda(x_2-x_1)f(x_1)+(1-\lambda)(x_2-x_1)f(x_2)$. By cancelling the common factor $(x_2-x_1)>0$ from both sides, you have what you want.