I am looking for an answer to the question
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with $1$, and let $M = (m)$ be a principal maximal ideal. Prove that there is no ideal $I$ such that $M^2 \subset I \subset M$.
I was given the following proof using module theory:
The quotient $\overline{M} = M/M^2$ is a module over the field $K = R/M$. Moreover, it is one-dimensional because $M$ is principal. Therefore the only submodules are $0$ and $\overline{M}$. Lifting back to $R$, this shows that the only ideals contained in $M$ and containing $M^2$ are $M$ and $M^2$.
Is there a proof of this question without appealing to module theory?
I understand that $M^2 = (m^2)$, and it "makes sense" that $R/M^2$ is a local ring with its unique maximal ideal as $(m + M^2)$ since all elements have the form $a + bm + M^2$, but I'm having difficulty proving this.
Suppose $I$ contained $rm$, with $r\not\in M$. Since $M$ is maximal, we can write $1=rt+sm$ for $r,s\in R$. If we further assume $m^2\in I$, then we have $m=(rm)t+s(m^2)\in I$, and so $M\leq I$.
Thus if $M^2\le I\le M$, either $I=M$, or no such element $rm$ exists in $I$, and $I=M^2$.