Tilted rectangle falling down

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Rectangle $ABCD$ is tilted such that its base $AB$ makes an angle of $\theta$ with the horizontal floor. It has its vertex $A$ in contact with the horizontal floor, and the rectangle is released from this position, to fall freely and the vertex at $A$ is free to slide along the floor.

What will be the rectangle's final linear and angular velocity when its base hits the floor?

The rectangle has dimensions: $\overline{AB} = \ell$ and $\overline{BC} = w $.

My initial thought:

The solution, I think, can be obtained from the Euler-Lagrange equation of motion.

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First, I define my state variables as follows: firstly, we have the linear distance of point $A$ from a fixed origin. Let's call this $x$. Then we have the tilt angle $q$ of the base $AB$ from the $x$ axis. We can take $x(0) = 0$ and $q(0) = \theta$.

The position of the center of mass of the rectangle is $$ P = (x, 0) + ( \ell \cos(q) - w \sin(q), \ell \sin(q) + w \cos(q) ). $$ Hence, the linear velocity is $$ \dot{P} = (\dot{x}, 0) + \dot{q} ( - \ell \sin(q) - w \cos(q) , \ell \cos(q) - w \sin(q) ). $$ The kinetic energy due to $\dot{P}$ is $$ \dfrac{1}{2} m \dot{P}^2 = \dfrac{1}{2} m \Big( \dot{x}^2 + \dot{q}^2 ( \ell^2 + w^2 ) + 2 \dot{x} \dot{q} \big( - \ell (q) - w \cos(q) \big) \Big). $$ And the kinetic energy due to rotation is $$ \dfrac{1}{2} I \dot{q}^2. $$ where $I$ is the moment of ineratia about the corner $A$ and is given by $$ I = \dfrac{1}{3} (\ell^2 + w^2). $$ Hence, the overall kinetic energy is $$ T = \dfrac{1}{2} m \dot{x}^2 + \dfrac{2}{3} m \dot{q}^2 + m \dot{x} \dot{q} ( - \ell \sin(q) - w \cos(q) ) $$ The potential energy is $$ V = \dfrac{1}{2} m g \big( \ell \sin(q) + w \cos(q) \big). $$ And as usual we define the Lagrangian function $L$ as follows $$ L = T - V = \dfrac{1}{2} m \dot{x}^2 + \dfrac{2}{3} m (\ell^2 + w^2) \dot{q}^2 + \dot{x} \dot{q} ( - \ell \sin(q) - w \cos(q) ) - \dfrac{1}{2} m g ( \ell \sin(q) + w \cos(q) ). $$ And the Euler-Lagrange equations of motion are $$ \dfrac{d}{dt} \dfrac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q}_i } = \dfrac{\partial L }{ q_i}. $$ where $q_1 = x, q_2 = q $. Applying this equation to our $L$, give the following two equations $$ \begin{cases} \ddot{x} + \ddot{q} \big( - \ell \sin(q) - w \cos(q) \big) + \dot{q}^2 \big( - \ell \cos(q) + w \sin(q) \big) = 0\\ \\ \dfrac{4}{3} (\ell^2 + w^2) \ddot{q} + \ddot{x} \big(-\ell \sin(q) - w \cos(q) \big) + \dot{x} \dot{q} \big( - \ell \cos(q) + w \sin(q) \big) = - \dfrac{1}{2} g \big( \ell \cos(q) - w \sin(q) \big). \end{cases} $$

Finally, if I adopt the suggestion in the comment below by mjqxxxx of changing the varible $q$ to $\phi = q + \tan^{-1}\left( \dfrac{w}{l} \right) $, and defining $r = \dfrac{1}{2}\sqrt{\ell^2 + w^2}$, then

$ \cos \phi =( \cos q \ell - \sin q w ) / (2 r ) $

$ \sin \phi = ( \sin q \ell + \cos q w ) / ( 2 r ) $

And $ \dot{q} = \dot{\phi} $ and $ \ddot{q} = \ddot{\phi} $

With this the equations above become

$$ \begin{cases} \ddot{x} - 2 r \ddot{q} \big( \sin \phi \big) - 2 r \dot{q}^2 \cos \phi = 0\\ \\ \dfrac{16}{3} r^2 \ddot{q} -2 r \ddot{x} \sin \phi - 2 r \dot{x} \dot{q} \cos \phi = - r g \cos \phi \end{cases} $$

Substituting for $\ddot{x}$ from the first into the second gives

$\dfrac{16}{3} r^2 \ddot{q} -4 r^2 \bigg( \ddot{q} \big( \sin \phi \big) + \dot{q}^2 \cos \phi \bigg) \sin \phi - 2 r \dot{x} \dot{\phi} \cos \phi = - r g \cos \phi$

We also know that due of absence of horiztonal forces, the horizontal coordinate of the center of mass of the rectangle stays constant, but this is given by $ x + r \cos \phi $, therefore, $ \dot{x} - r \dot{\phi} \sin \phi = 0 $. Substituting this, we get an equation in $\phi$ and its two time derivatives:

$\dfrac{16}{3} r^2 \ddot{\phi} -4 r^2 \bigg( \ddot{\phi} \big( \sin \phi \big) + \dot{\phi}^2 \cos \phi \bigg) \sin \phi - 2 r^2 \sin \phi \dot{\phi}^2 \cos \phi = - r g \cos \phi$

Divide by $r^2$ and simplify

$ ( \dfrac{4}{3} + 4 \cos^2 \phi ) \ddot{\phi} - 6 \dot{\phi}^2 \sin \phi \cos \phi = - \left(g/ r \right) \cos \phi $

Hence,

$ \ddot{\phi} = \dfrac{ - 3 (g/r) \cos \phi + 18 \dot{\phi}^2 \sin \phi \cos \phi }{ 4 + 12 \cos^2 \phi } $

I have two questions now:

  1. Are these equations correct?
  2. And second, are there closed-form solutions for them?
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There are 2 best solutions below

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This may be a case where the Euler-Lagrange machinery is unnecessarily abstract. Call the center of the rectangle $O$; let $\phi$ be the angle between the positive $x$-axis and $\overline{AO}$; and let $r=\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{w^2+\ell^2}$ be the length of $\overline{AO}$. The center of mass is at height $h=r \sin\phi$. There is an upward force $F$ acting at $A$, and the downward force of gravity $mg$ acting at $O$, so the net force is $F-mg$, and $$ F-mg=m\ddot{h}=m\frac{d^2}{dt^2}(r\sin\phi)=mr\left(\ddot{\phi}\cos\phi - (\dot{\phi})^2\sin\phi\right). $$ Moreover, the torque relative to $O$ is $\tau=-Fr\sin(\pi/2-\phi)=-Fr\cos\phi$, so $$ -Fr\cos\phi=I\ddot{\phi}=\frac{1}{3}mr^2\ddot{\phi}. $$ Putting these two expressions for $F$ together, we find the equation of motion for $\phi$ to be $$ \ddot{\phi}=\frac{(\dot{\phi})^2\sin\phi\cos\phi - (g/r)\cos\phi}{\cos^2\phi + 1/3}. $$ Note that $\ddot\phi$ is initially negative, as expected, since the block is rotating clockwise and $\phi$ will decrease. Also, this equation of motion appears to depend on $g/r$, but it really doesn't... choosing the unit of time to be $\sqrt{r/g}$ makes the equation dimensionless and parameter-free. Two things can happen as $\phi$ decreases at an ever-increasing rate. If $\phi$ reaches $\tan^{-1}(w/\ell)$, the bottom of the block hits the ground. Or, if $F$ becomes zero first, the corner of the block will leave the ground; this occurs when $(\dot{\phi})^2 \ge g/(r\sin\phi)$. It turns out that the block doesn't leave the ground if we start at rest (though it could if the block were given an initial angular momentum).

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$$\frac{∂L}{∂θ} - \frac{d}{dt}(\frac{∂L}{∂\dotθ })=0 $$ And $ L = \frac{mv^2}{2}+mgh$ Where $ v = \dotθl$ and $ h = sinθl$ So we get $$-mglcosθ-ml^2\ddotθ=0$$ $$ \ddotθ= -\frac{g}{l}cosθ$$ Here I substituted $φ = \frac{g}{l} $ Which I solved, using the laplace transform $$ \mathcal{L}(\ddotθ)=θ(s)s^2-Qs-w$$ where $w$ is the starting speed and Q is the starting angle. $$ \mathcal{L}(-φcosθ) = -φ\frac{s}{s^2+1}$$ Combining them together we get: $$ θ(s) = -φ\frac{1}{(s^2+1)s} + \frac{Q}{s} + \frac{w}{s^2}$$ Now lets do them by parts: $$ \mathcal{L}^-1(-φ\frac{1}{(s^2+1)s}) = -φ\mathcal{L}^-1(\frac{1}{(s^2+1)s}) = -φ(\mathcal{L}^-1 \frac{s^2+1}{(s^2+1)s} - \mathcal{L}^-1 \frac{s^2}{(s^2+1)s}) = -φ(1 - cost) $$ $$ \mathcal{L}^-1(\frac{Q}{s}) = Q$$ $$ \mathcal{L}^-1(\frac{w}{s^2})=wt$$ So, $$ θ(t) = φ(cost-1) + wt + Q$$

The Angle is relative to point B. I think this is correct, but if someone finds something incorrect tell me.

EDIT: If you truly wanted to find the final linear and angular velocity, you should find when $ φ(\cos{t}-1) + wt + Q = 0 $, which I believe is a transcendental equation for all $w \neq0$. But you could go about by approximating it using Newton's method. $$x_{n+1}=x_n - \frac{φ(\cos{x_n}-1) + wx_n + Q}{w-φ\sin{x_n}}$$ $$ t_{final} = x_{\infty}$$ If $w=0$ then $$φ(\cos{(t_{final})}-1) + Q = 0$$ $$\cos{(t_{final})} = 1-\frac{Q}{φ}$$ $$t_{final}=\arccos{(1-\frac{Q}{φ})}$$ Then $$w_{final} = |\dot \theta (t_{final})| = |w-φ\sin{(t_{final})}|$$ and $$ v_{final} = w_{final}l$$ I hope this answers your question.