Time-derivative of the euclidean norm squared doesn't explicitly depend on time?

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If V=$\mathrm \Vert x \Vert_\mathrm{}^2$, then $\dot V=2V(V-1)$ according to a controls textbook making an off-hand mathematical observation.

I can possibly understand the 2V, but am not sure where the (V-1) comes from. Could anyone show this derivation or point me in the right direction?

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That relationship only applies for particular systems, such as the one the textbook was using. The particular system was: $ \\ \dot x_1=x_1(x_1^2+x_2^2-2)-4x_1x_2^2 \\ \dot x_2=4x_1^2x_2+x_2(x_1^2+x_2^2-2) $