If a group is abelian then it is known that every subgroup of the group is normal ; is the converse true i.e. if every subgroup of a group is normal , then is it true that the grroup is abelian ? If this converse is not true , then is their a partial converse ?
2026-03-28 11:44:19.1774698259
To derive commutativeness of any group from the normality of all its subgroups & some other conditions
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