To determine the integration of $ \int_{0}^{+\infty} \exp\!\Big(-\Big(\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{gx+h}\Big)\Big) dx$.

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What is the integration of the following function: $$ \int_\nolimits{0}^{+\infty} \exp\!\bigg(-\bigg(\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{gx+h}\bigg) \bigg)dx.$$

What I have done is as follows:

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Here, $\kappa=c-\Big(\frac{bg-ah}{g^2}\Big)h$. \begin{align*}\implies & \int_{0}^{+\infty} \exp\!\bigg(-\bigg(\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{gx+h}\bigg)\bigg) dx \\ =& \int_{0}^{+\infty}\exp\!\bigg(-\bigg(\frac{a}{g}x+\frac{b g-a h}{g^2}\bigg)\bigg)\exp\!\bigg(-\frac{\kappa}{gx+h}\bigg)dx.\end{align*} I am finding it difficult to proceed further from here. Is this approach correct or is there any other intuitive way to solve this problem? Thanks in advance for the help.

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Defining the incomplete Bessel function as

$$ K_\nu(x,y) = \int_1^{\infty} t^{-\left(\nu+1 \right)}e^{-\left(xt + \frac{y}{t} \right)}\, \mathrm{d}t $$ We get \begin{align} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{gx+h}} \, \mathrm{d}x & \overset{\color{purple}{x = \frac{h}{g}(t - 1)}}{=}\frac{h}{g}e^{\frac{2ah}{g^2}-\frac{b}{g}} \int_{1}^{\infty}e^{-\left[\left( \frac{ah}{g^2}\right)t + \left(\frac{ah}{g^2}- \frac{b}{g} + \frac{c}{h} \right)\frac{1}{t} \right]}\, \mathrm{d}t\\ & =\boxed{\frac{h}{g}e^{\frac{2ah}{g^2}-\frac{b}{g}} K_{-1}\left(\frac{ah}{g^2},\frac{ah}{g^2}- \frac{b}{g} + \frac{c}{h}\right)} \end{align}


For the special case of $h=0$ you can obtain a closed-form in terms of a Modified Bessel function.

Notice that

$$ \frac{ax^2+bx+c}{gx} = \frac{a}{g}x + \frac{c}{gx} + \frac{b}{g} $$ Now, for the integral to converge we require that the $\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{gx} \to + \infty$ when $x \to \infty$. This condition is met when $\frac{a}{g}>0$, so we'll do the rest of the analysis assuming this condition holds true. Additionally, we don't want $\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{gx}\to -\infty$ when $x \to 0^+$ since this would also make the integral divergent. To avoid this we also require that $\color{Purple}{\frac{c}{g}>0}$. With this we see that $$ \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{gx}} \, \mathrm{d}x = e^{-\frac{b}{ g}}\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\left(\frac{a}{g}x + \frac{c}{gx} \right) } \, \mathrm{d}x \overset{\color{Purple}{u = \frac{g}{c}x}}{=}\frac{c}{g}e^{-\frac{b}{g}} \int_{0}^{\color{Purple}{+\infty}} e^{-\left(\frac{\left(\color{green}{\frac{2}{|g|}\sqrt{ac}}\right)^2}{4}u + \frac{1}{u}\right)} \, \mathrm{d}u $$ Now, from the Digital Library of Mathematical Functions we know that $$ K_{\nu}(x) = \frac{1}{2}\left( \frac{1}{2}x\right)^{\nu}\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\left( \frac{x^2}{4t} + t\right)} \frac{1}{t^{\nu+1}} \, \mathrm{d}t, \qquad \forall x \in \mathbb{R} $$ which means that $$ \frac{4}{x} K_{1}(x)=\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\left( \frac{x^2}{4t} + t\right)} \frac{1}{t^{2}} \, \mathrm{d}t \overset{\color{blue}{u = \frac{1}{t}}}{=} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\left(\frac{\color{green}{x}^2}{4} u + \frac{1}{u} \right)} \, \mathrm{d}u $$ So combining everything, if $\frac{a}{g}, \frac{c}{g} >0$ then: $$ \boxed{\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\frac{ax^2+bx+c}{gx}} \, \mathrm{d}x = 2\sqrt{\frac{c}{a}}e^{-\frac{b}{g}}K_{1}\left(\frac{2}{|g|}\sqrt{ac}\right)} $$