We have to prove : $\lim_{n \to +\infty} a_{n} = 0$, where $a_{n}= \frac{1}{n}$.
The proof goes like this : $\forall\epsilon >0 \exists N=N(\epsilon)\in \mathbb{N} : \forall n \geq N \implies \mid \frac{1}{n} - 0 \mid < \epsilon$, from this we get : $n >\frac{1}{\epsilon}$, and from the Archimedian Principle of the Real Numbers we choose : $N=[\frac{1}{\epsilon}]+1 > \frac{1}{\epsilon}$, that's why we get : $\mid \frac{1}{n} - 0 \mid = \frac{1}{n} \leq \frac{1}{N} <\epsilon$.
I didn't understand how the $N$ is chosen here and used in the proof. (I understand the Archimedean Property but I'm confused of choosing $N$ in this aspect of the proof).
Recall Archimedian priciple: given $x \in \mathbb{R}$, we can find $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $N > x$.
In particular, a remark is that if $x$ is nonnegative, we can always choose $N$ to be $[x] + 1$.
For such thing, usually we work backward.
What do we want to find is $N(\epsilon)$ that would satisfy:
We can rewrite it as
Given $\epsilon > 0$, we want to choose $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $n\ge N$ then $n > \frac1\epsilon$. The Archimedian Principle of real number promises us that such $N \in \mathbb{N}$ exists such that $N > \frac1\epsilon$ (the $x$ in the Archimedian principle is $\frac1\epsilon$), hence if $n \ge N$, we can conclude that $n > \frac1{\epsilon}$.