I want to prove that $f: X \to Y$ is an embedding iff it induces a homeo $\tilde f: X \to f(X)$.
Recall that an injective homeo is an embedding if $\tau_X = \{f^{-1}(V): V \in \tau_Y \}$.
Now, if $f$ is an embedding, because for all $V$ open in $Y$ we have $f^{-1}(V) = \tilde f^{-1}(V \cap f(X))$, $\tilde f$ is a homeo.
Conversely, suppose we have a homeo $\tilde f : X \to f(X)$. We want to prove that $\tau_X = \{f^{-1}(V): V \in \tau_Y \}$. Clearly, since $f$ is continuous, $f^{-1}(V) \in \tau_X$ for all $Y \in \tau_Y$. How can I prove these are the only opens? I guess I should also use $f$ injective somewhere.
Thanks.
Take any open set $U\subset X$. Since $\tilde f$ is a homeomorphism, the image $\tilde f(U)\subset Y$ is open in $f(X)$. A homeomorphism always maps an open set to an open set, as can be seen by using the definition of continuity for the inverse $\tilde f^{-1}$. By the definition of the relative topology of $f(X)\subset Y$, there is an open set $V\subset Y$ so that $\tilde f(U)=f(X)\cap V$.
Now: $$f^{-1}(V)=\tilde f^{-1}(V)=\tilde f^{-1}(\tilde f(U))=U$$ so $U$ is of the desired form.