Consider a ball $B_1$ and the quotient of two balls $B_2$ and $B_3$ at some common point $p \in B_2,B_3$ that we denote as $B_2 \#_p B_3$.
What topological invariants can be used in order to prove that $B_1$ and $B_2 \#_p B_3$ are not topologically equivalent?
Thanks in advance.
The operation that you consider is usually called a wedge-product.
The easiest way to see that these two spaces are not homeomorphic is to consider the wedge product deprived from point $p$: the result is a disconnected space. On the other hand, there is no point in the ball the removal of which would result in a disconnected space.