I have found this in the internet:
Suppose$$\mathcal B=\{[a,b)\mid a\in\Bbb R\wedge b\in\Bbb Q\wedge a<b\},$$ $$\mathcal B_1=\{[a,b)\mid a\in\Bbb R\wedge b\in\Bbb R\wedge a<b\},$$and$$\mathcal B_2=\{[a,b)\mid a\in\Bbb Q\wedge b\in\Bbb Q\wedge a<b\}.$$Show that $\mathcal B$ and $\mathcal B_1$ are two different bases for the same topology on $\Bbb R$. Is $\mathcal B_2$ another basis for the same topology?
I already know that $\mathcal{B}_1$ is the Sorgenfrey line. What I did not know is that $b$ doesn't need to be real in order to get the line topology. How can i show this?
I have found that $\mathcal{B}_2$ is also a topology (on $\mathbb{R}$?) but it is not equivalent with the Sorgenfrey line. I cannot find anywhere proofs for this and I don't have an idea how to show this.
Has anyone a proof for this two statements?
In general: Is there somewhere an overview for all the topologies on $\mathbb{R}$ generated by all the intervals?
It is clear that $\mathcal B\subset\mathcal B_1$. On the other hand, if $a,b\in\Bbb R$ and $a<b$, if you take e sequence $(b_n)_{n\in\Bbb N}$ of rational numbers from $[a,b)$ such that $\lim_{n\to\infty}b_n=b$, then $[a,b)=\bigcup_{n\in\Bbb N}[a,b_n)$. So, $\mathcal B$ and $\mathcal B_1$ are bases of the same topology.
You will find an answer to your other question here.