In topology, if I restrict the domain of a homeomorphism and find who's the image of the restricted homeomorphism, the domain and the image are still homeomorphs?
For example... Prove that if $X$ and $Y$are homeomorph topological spaces => $\forall x \in X, \exists y \in Y $such that X\{x} $\cong$ Y\{y}.
I began saying that if $X$ and $Y$are homeomorphs, then there exists a homeomorphism between them, let's call it $h$. Let's restrict the domain of $h$ to X\{x}.
Since $h$ is a bijection, the $x$ I'm taking out has the property that if $h(x) = y$, there can be no other $x' \in X$ such that $h(x')=y$. So the image of the restricted $h$ becomes Y\{y}.
Since I took out only one point of $X$ and one point of $Y$, I didn't break the rules of homeomorphism, the result should still be a homeomorphism. But I'm not sure about that, because I haven't considered any topology over X\{x} and Y\{y}...
If $A\subset X$ and $B\subset Y$ are related by $B=f(A)$, where $f:X\to Y$ is a homeomorphism, then $A$ is homeomorphic to $B$ (where both subsets are endowed with the subspace topology). This is because of the more general fact stated below
To get the result you want you apply this fact to the homeomorphism $f:X\to Y$ and its inverse $g:Y\to X$. The result in the highlighted paragraph tells us that they induce continuous maps $A\to B$ and $B\to A$, and from $g\circ f=\mathrm{id}_X$ and $f\circ g=\mathrm{id}_Y$ it follows that $\overline{g}\circ\overline{f}=\mathrm{id}_A$ and $\overline{f}\circ\overline{g}=\mathrm{id}_B$ it follows that $\overline{g},\overline{f}$ are a pair of inverse homeomorphisms.