If $\pi:E\to M$ is an orientable $S^{2n}$-bundle, then (see Bott-Tu 11.20) $$(1) \qquad \qquad H^{\ast}(E)=H^{\ast}(M) \otimes H^{\ast}(S^{2n}).$$ If $\pi:E'\to M'$ is another orientable $S^{2n}$-bundle such that $H^{\ast}(M')=H^{\ast}(M)$, then we conclude that from $(1)$ that $H^{\ast}(E)=H^{\ast}(E')$.
Question: Suppose that we further assume that $M$ and $M'$ are homeomorphic. What can we conclude about the topology of $E$ and $E'$ in this case? For example, is it true that $E$ and $E'$ are homotopy equivalent, or even homeomorphic? If this is too ambitious, what if we restrict to the case where $M$ and $M'$ are themselves homeomorphic to a sphere?
Consider the two $S^{2}$-bundles over $S^{2}$, $X_{2} = Bl_{p}(\mathbb{CP}^{2}) (= \mathbb{CP}^{2} \# \bar{\mathbb{CP}^{2}})$ and $X_{1} = S^{2} \times S^{2}$. Then the intersection form on $H^{2}(X_{i},\mathbb{Z})$ is even for $i=1$ and odd for $i=2$. Hence these 4-manifolds are not homotopy equivalent.