the total variation of a function $u\in L^1(\Omega)$, $\Omega\subset \mathbb{R}^n$, can be defined as
$$ \sup \{ \int_\Omega u \; \mathrm{div} g \; dx:\; g \in C_c^1(\Omega,\mathbb{R}^n), \; \lvert g(x) \rvert \leq 1,\; x \in \Omega \} $$
for (weakly) differentiable functions $u$, this supremum equals the $L^1$ norm of the (weak) gradient $\int_\Omega \lvert \nabla u \rvert\; dx$. however, i can't seem to find the rigorous argument to show this. can someone help me?
Let $\epsilon > 0$. Pick $f$ in $C^\infty(\Omega) \cap BV(\Omega)$ so $\|u-f\|_{L^1(\Omega)} < \epsilon$ and $\Big|\int_\Omega |Du|- \int_\Omega |Df|\Big| < \epsilon$. By integration by parts,
$$ \begin{aligned} \int_\Omega |Df|&= \sup\{ \int_\Omega f\text{ div}g \mid g\in C_0^1(\Omega, \mathbb{R}^n)|g| \leq 1\}\\ &=\sup\{ \int_\Omega -\nabla f \cdot g \mid g\in C_0^1(\Omega, \mathbb{R}^n),\ |g| \leq 1\}\\ &=\sup\{ \int_\Omega \nabla f \cdot g \mid g\in C_0^1(\Omega, \mathbb{R}^n)\, |g| \leq 1\} = \|\nabla f\|_{L^1({\Omega})}\\ \end{aligned} $$ % which can be confirmed by letting $g$ close to $\frac{1}{\lvert \nabla f \rvert} \nabla f$. Now let $\epsilon \to 0$