Transform the following equation to new independent variables $u = x$, $v = x^2+y^2$
$$ y\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} - x \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = 0 $$
Notce you don't have to actually solve the pde, the problem is to transform it. The official answer is $ \frac{\partial z}{\partial u} = 0 $
My work:
$$ y\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} = x\frac{\partial z}{\partial y} \longrightarrow \frac{1}{x}\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} = \frac{1}{y}\frac{\partial z}{\partial y} $$
$$ \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial z}{\partial v}\frac{\partial v}{\partial y} \longrightarrow \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial z}{\partial v}2y $$
Substituting, you get
$$ \frac{1}{x} \frac{\partial z}{\partial x} = 2\frac{\partial z}{\partial v} $$
By the same procedure you can get
$$ \frac{\partial z}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial z}{\partial u} $$
Finally, I got
$$ \frac{1}{u}\frac{\partial z}{\partial u} = 2\frac{\partial z}{\partial v} $$
Which is obviously not the official answer. Am I doing something wrong and if not, how do I finish the problem?
Thanks.
In your procedure the step $\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial z}{\partial u}$ does not true.
$\implies$ $$\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} =\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}(1)+\frac{\partial z}{\partial v}(2x)=\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}+2x\frac{\partial z}{\partial v}$$ and
$$ \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} =\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}(0)+\frac{\partial z}{\partial v}(2y)=2y\frac{\partial z}{\partial v}$$
So $y\frac{\partial z}{\partial x} - x \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = 0\implies y\frac{\partial z}{\partial u}+2yx\frac{\partial z}{\partial v}-2xy\frac{\partial z}{\partial v}=0\implies \frac{\partial z}{\partial u}=0$