Is there any way to rewrite the Laplace transform is such a way that that one can apply to an IVP not centred at zero, that is, at some $y^{(n)}(a_n) = b_n$ for $n\in\mathbb{N}$ and $a_n \in\mathbb{R}\setminus {\{0\}}$, $b_n\in\mathbb{R}$
$\textbf{Edit:}$ For instance, consider the BVP,
$$\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}-3\frac{dy}{dx}+2y=0\quad y(2)=1,y'(4)=8$$