Define, for some $a\in\mathbb{R}, f_{a}:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}^{2}$ by $f_{a}(p)=(p,a)$ and consider $N\subset\mathbb{R}^{2}, \ N=\{(x,x^2); x\in\mathbb{R}\}.$ Analysis of the transversality of $f_{a}$ with $N.$ Could someone help me, please?
Geometrically, we can see that for $a\leq 0,$ $f_{a}$ isn't transversality to $N$. How to prove it?
So, $d(f_{a})_{p}(v)=(v,0)$ and $T_{(p,p^2)}N=\{(v,2pv)| v \in \mathbb{R}\}.$
How and why does $ a $ influence this?
Let me recall that:
Therefore, whenever $f^{-1}(Z)$ is empty, $f$ is automatically transverse to $Z$. In particular, if $a<0$, then ${f_a}^{-1}(N)$ is empty and $f_a$ is transverse to $N$.
Furthermore, for all $p\in\mathbf{R}$ and all $v\in\mathbf{R}$, $T_pf_a(v)=(v,0)$, indeed, carry the following computations: \begin{align*} f_a(p+v)&=(p+v,a),\\ &=(p,a)+(v,0),\\ &=f_p(a)+(v,0)+O(\|v\|^2), \end{align*} hence as $v\mapsto (v,0)$ is linear, it is $T_pf_a(v)$.
From there, distinguish the three following cases:
Geometrically, you are asked to determine when the line $y=a$ intersects transversely the parabola $y=x^2$, as these are two one-dimensional submanifolds of $\mathbf{R}^2$, which is a two-dimensional manifold, this happens whenever $y=a$ is not tangent to $y=x^2$ (as two vectors of $\mathbf{R}^2$ span $\mathbf{R}^2$ whenever they are not colinear), this explains the three cases above.