I am trying to evaluate the following definite integral (for $a>0$):
$$I=\int_{0}^{1}{{{\left( {{\left( 1-{{x}^{a}} \right)}^{\frac{1}{a}}}-x \right)}^{2}}dx}$$ Neither the substitution $u={{\left( 1-{{x}^{a}} \right)}^{\frac{1}{a}}}$ nor $u={{\left( 1-{{x}^{a}} \right)}^{\frac{1}{a}}}-x$ are appropriate.I have also tried Feynman’s trick (differentiated with respect to a) but I didn’t get any success. Thanks in advance.
Hint. By the change of variable $$ u=x^a,\qquad x=u^{1/a},\qquad dx=\frac{1}{a}u^{1/a-1}du, $$ one gets $$ I=\int_{0}^{1}{{{\left( {{\left( 1-{{x}^{a}} \right)}^{\frac{1}{a}}}-x \right)}^{2}}dx}=\frac{1}{a}\int_{0}^{1}{{{\left( {{\left( 1-u\right)}^{\frac{1}{a}}}-u^{1/a} \right)}^{2}}u^{1/a-1}du} $$ then by expanding the square one is led to apply the standard Euler beta evaluation: $$ \int_{0}^{1}(1-u)^{s-1} u^{t-1}\,du = \frac{\Gamma(s)\Gamma(t)}{\Gamma(s+t)},\quad \operatorname{Re}(s)>0,\,\operatorname{Re}(t)>0. $$