Let $G$ be a group and $\mathbb k$ a field. Then, let $\mathfrak 1$ be the trivial $\mathbb k G$-module.
According to Lorenz's A Tour of Representation Theory, he states "it turns out $\mathfrak 1$ has a great significance, if it is a projective as a $\mathbb kG$-module, then all $\mathbb kG$-module is projective" and goes on to reference Maschke's Theorem.
I can understand the following claim, that a ring $\mathbb kG$ is semisimple if and only if all its modules are projective, so Maschke's Theorem does indeed show that $\mathfrak 1$ is projective for a semisimple $\mathbb k G$. I can also see that if $\mathfrak 1$ is projective, then it is direct summand of some free module.
However, I don't understand how the converse implication (i.e. $\mathfrak 1$ projective implies $\mathbb kG$ semisimple) suggested by Lorenz's remark is shown. It seems to suggest that we want $\mathfrak 1$ to be the direct summand of $\mathbb kG$ as a $\mathbb kG$-module, but I don't quite see how this is done and even if it is, how the remark is proven.
One can see in the following way that every $G$-representation (over $\mathbb{k}$) is projective.
Step 1. For every two representations $V$ and $W$ of $G$, the vector space $\operatorname{Hom}_{\mathbb{k}}(V,W)$ is again a representation of $G$ via $$ (g \cdot f)(v) = g \cdot f( g^{-1} \cdot v ) $$ for all $g \in G$, $f \in \operatorname{Hom}_{\mathbb{k}}(V, W)$ and $v \in V$. A linear map $f$ from $V$ to $W$ is $G$-invariant if and only if it is a homomorphism of representations, i.e. $$ \operatorname{Hom}_{\mathbb{k}}(V,W)^G = \operatorname{Hom}_G(V,W) \,. $$
Step 2. We have for every $\mathbb{k}$-vector space $V$ the natural isomorphism of vector spaces $$ \operatorname{Hom}_{\mathbb{k}}(\mathbb{k}, V) \longrightarrow V \,, \quad f \longmapsto f(1) \,. $$ Suppose now that $V$ is a representation of $G$. The above isomorphism of vector spaces is then an isomorphism of $G$-representations. It therefore restricts to a natural isomorphism of vector spaces $$ \operatorname{Hom}_G(\mathbb{k}, V) \longrightarrow V^G \,. $$
Step 3. Suppose now that the trivial representations $\mathbb{k}$ is projective. This means that the functor $$ \operatorname{Hom}_G(\mathbb{k}, -) \colon \mathbf{Rep}(G) \longrightarrow \mathbf{Vect}(\mathbb{k}) $$ is exact. It follows from the (natural) isomorphism $\operatorname{Hom}_G(\mathbb{k}, -) \cong (-)^G$ that the functor $$ (-)^G \colon \mathbf{Rep}(G) \longrightarrow \mathbf{Vect}(\mathbb{k}) $$is exact.
Step 4. Let now $V$ be an arbitrary representations of $G$. The functor $\operatorname{Hom}_G(V, -)$ equals the composition $$ \mathbf{Rep}(G) \xrightarrow{ \enspace \operatorname{Hom}_{\mathbb{k}}(V, -) \enspace } \mathbf{Rep}(G) \xrightarrow{ \enspace (-)^G \enspace } \mathbf{Vect}(\mathbb{k}) \,. $$ Both of these functors are exact, whence $\operatorname{Hom}_G(V, -)$ is exact. This shows that $V$ is projective.
There is also another way to look at this problem: The group structure of $G$ gives its group algebra $\mathbb{k}G$ the structure of a Hopf algebra.
Given a Hopf algebra $H$, the ground field $\mathbb{k}$ becomes an $H$-module via $$ x \cdot y = \varepsilon(x) y $$ for all $x \in H$ and $y \in \mathbb{k}$. The counit map $\varepsilon$ becomes in this way a homomorphism of $H$-modules from $H$ to $\mathbb{k}$.
There is now a generalization of Maschke’s theorem to Hopf algebras.
One shows this by proving the implications $$ 1 \implies 5 \implies 4 \implies 3 \implies 2 \implies 1 \,. $$
By actually going through the full proof of the above theorem, one sees that when $\mathbb{k}$ is projective as an $H$-module, then the surjective homomorphism of $H$-modules $\varepsilon$ from $H$ to $\mathbb{k}$ splits. Such a split gives us a homomorphism of $H$-modules from $\mathbb{k}$ to $H$, which in turn corresponds to an element of $H$. This element is then the “averaging element” $a$.