If $A$ is an $n\times n$ invertible matrix and $B$ is an $n\times m$ matrix, then $\operatorname{rank}(AB) = \operatorname{rank}(B)$.
Is this true or false?
I've tried proven that if $B=0$, then $\operatorname{rank}(AB)=\operatorname{rank}(B)$, but I don't know how to do it when $\operatorname{rank}(B)$ isn't zero.
Hint
The statement is true, because $\mathrm{rank}(A) = n$, i.e. all columns of $A$ are linearly independent (wich implies...)