Let $p,q$ and $r$ be sentances
I know that $[(p\to q)\land (p\to r)]\iff p\to(q\land r)$. (1) is true.
Let $p,q,r,s,t$ be sentences
Is $[(p\to q)\land (p\to r)\land (p\to s)\land (p\to t)]\iff p\to(q\land r\land s\land t)$ be true by (1)
If not what would I do to make it a tautology?
Btw:What is the mathjax for union,intersection
It is valid.
Take the LHS as premise, then assuming $p$ enables the collective derivation of all of the conjuncts ($q,r,s,t$). Therefore the LHS entails the RHS.
Take the RHS as premise, then assuming $p$ multiple times enables the individual derivation of each of the conjuncts ($q,r,s,t$). Therefore the RHS entails the LHS.
Therefore the LSH entails and is entailed by the RHS, so it is a valid equivalence.
And you can prove this by a truth table.
$$\boxed{\begin{array}{|c|c|}p&q&r&s&t&(p\to q)\wedge(p\to r)\wedge (p\to s)\wedge p\to t)&p\to(q\wedge r\wedge s\wedge t)\\\hline\top&\top&\top&\top&\top&\top&\top\\\top&\top&\top&\top&\bot&\bot&\bot\\\vdots&\vdots&\vdots&\vdots&\vdots&\vdots&\vdots\end{array}}$$
PS: