Why is it that?
$$z + \sum_{2 \le k \le n}^{\infty} \frac{q^{n-1}}{n-1} k(k-1)p^{n-k} \dbinom{2n-k-2}{n-2}z^n = \sum_{j, k \ge 0}^{\infty} \frac{q^{j+k-1}}{j+k-1} k(k-1)p^j \dbinom{2j+k-2}{j}z^{j+k}. $$
I get that you can just plug $j+k=n$, but where does the $z$ appears in the latter?
Comment:
In (1) we reorder the summands by introducing $n=j+k, n\geq 0$.
In (2) we eliminate the index $j$ by substituting $j=n-k$.
In (3) we rewrite the index region and use the binomial identity $\binom{p}{q}=\binom{p}{p-q}$.
In (4) we observe that the summands with indices $(n,k)\in\{(0,0),(0,1),(1,0)\}$ vanish due to the factor $k(k-1)$, whereas in the case $(n,k)=(1,1)$ the expression $\frac{k-1}{n-1}$ cancels, leaving $z$.