Why is the following statement true:
"Two derivations are equal if they agree on $0$ forms $f$ and exact $1$-forms $df$ since locally they generate the exterior algebra." ?
I found this statement in this post.
Why is the following statement true:
"Two derivations are equal if they agree on $0$ forms $f$ and exact $1$-forms $df$ since locally they generate the exterior algebra." ?
I found this statement in this post.
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.