Let $w$ be a value which is known to be somewhere in the open interval $(a,b) \subset [0,2\pi]$.
If $x$ is a value in $[0,1)$, and we know that $$\cos{2\pi x} = \cos{w} \\ \sin 2\pi x = \sin w$$ can we prove that this happens if and only if $x \in (a/2\pi, b/2\pi)$?
This would be a convenient result in a larger proof I am writing, but I am unsure if this is true, and unsure how to prove if it is or isn't since my trig skills are very sloppy.
Yes, given that you are within one circle the sine and cosine values are sufficient to define an angle, so you have $2\pi x = w$. Given the restriction on $w$, the restriction on $x$ follows.