I have this problem:
Let $f,g\in C^1(\mathbb{R}^2,\mathbb{R}^2)$ function that satisfy inverse function theorem in $(2,5)$ such that $f(2,5)=g(2,5)=(2,5)$..
$f-g$ satisfy inversion function theorem in $(2,5)$?
What I can't understand is what does $f(2,5)=g(2,5)=(2,5)$ mean/ could be helpful in order to help me solve this problem. Thanks