I wonder about two things. First, how do we prove that entailment in some logic is monotonic? The second one - What is the relationship between monotonicity of logic and deduction theorem? It seems rather clear that deduction theorem doesn't hold in nonmonotonic logics. But do we have deduction theorem in every possible monotonic logic?
I will be extremely thankful for answers!
Take your favourite Hilbert-style axiomatization of propositional logic. Mendelson's for example. We can prove that the deduction theorem holds with respect to that theory.
Now kill e.g. all instances of Mendelson's first axiom schemata. The proof of the deduction theorem won't go through any more. Damn!
But the weakened logic is still monotonic. That is to say, if in the weakened logic you have $A \vdash C$, then you'll have $A, B \vdash C$, for any $B$. That's because a proof is still defined to be a sequence of wffs such that each one is either an axiom or follows from early wffs in the sequence by modus ponens -- a definition which ensures monotonicity but says nothing about which axioms are actually available.