I am unable to think why an integral must converge while studying a research paper in analytic number theory.
where $n,r,a$ are integers satisfying $1\leq r<a/2$.
Here author writes that integral must converge for any complex $z$ such that $|z|>1$.
Can someone please give hints.

My answer ended up being fairly long so I was unsure about how to frame it as a hint.
I've kept all the details below. You can take the nonhidden bit as a hint (it is quite easy to work out the rest from it).
We'll start off with a relevant fact.
Fact: For any $a \in [0,1]$ and any $n\in \mathbb Z^+$, $|a^n-a^{n+1}+a|\leq 1$.
Proof: Proceed by induction. If $n=1$, the expression becomes $|a^1-a^{1+1}+a|=|2a-a^2|=|1-(a-1)^2|$, which, for $a\in [0,1]$ is clearly bounded above by $1$.
Suppose we have proven the Fact statement for the case of $n=k\geq 1$. Then, when $n=k+1$, we have for any $a\in [0,1]$: $$a^{k+1}-a^{k+2}+a=a(a^k-a^{k+1}+a)+(a-a^2)\leq a+(a-a^2)=2a-a^2\leq 1$$ And also, trivially: $$a^{k+1}-a^{k+2}+a=a^{k+1}(1-a)+a\geq a\geq 0$$
So we conclude that the statement holds when $n=k+1$ as well, completing the proof by induction.
Now, apply the fact to $|x_l^k-x_l^{k+1}+x|$ to bound $|x_l^k(1-x_l)|$.