Under what assumptions $2\pi$ is needed in Fourier series?

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Here are different ways to write a Fourier series:

In Wikipedia:

$$f(x) =\sum_{n=-N}^N c_n\cdot \mathrm e^{i\frac{2\pi nx}{P}}\tag 1$$

On a lecture by Prof. Strang:

$$f(x) =\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty c_n\cdot \mathrm e^{i\; nx} \tag 2$$

Or on a lecture by Prof. Brad Osgood:

$$f(x) =\sum_{n=-N}^N c_n\cdot \mathrm e^{i\; 2\pi n x} \tag 3$$

I see that the difference between (1) and (3) is the premise that $P=1$ in the Stanford lecture.

However, I want to ask for some insight about when $2\pi$ is needed - one obvious difference is the sum limits with $-N$ to $N$ calling for $2 \pi$ versus $-\infty$ to $\infty$ in (2) - the only formula without $2\pi.$ But what is the reason for this different formulation?

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Just for the sake of closing the question (thanks to @Shinaolord for the comments), the equation is predictably the same in the three instances:

$$f(x) =\sum_{n=-N}^N c_n\cdot \mathrm e^{i\;2\pi\;\frac{ n}{P}\;x}$$

This would be the finite or partial-sum FS of period $P$ (equivalent to the discrete Fourier transform (DFT)), as opposed to the infinite sum or Fourier series representation of $f(x)$ in equation (2) (equivalent to the discrete-time Fourier transform (DTFT)).

In addition, equation (2) uses a $P=2\pi.$ In the case of equation (3), $P=1.$