Let $f$ and $g$ be functions defined on $(1,∞)$ and assume they are always positive. We say that $f$ grows much slower than $g$ if $$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 0$$ For any $N \in \Bbb{N}$ and $\delta > 0$, show that $(\ln x)^N$ grows much slower than $x^\delta$. You can think of N as large and $\delta$ as small.
The question I have is that I don't understand how to approach this problem.I already have trouble completely understanding ln and log functions. This question is based on our lessons on application of derivatives.
Consider the sequence defined by $x_i=2^i$, and define also $y_i=\frac{(\ln x_i)^N}{x_i^\delta}.$ We’ll prove $$\lim_{i\to\infty}y_i=0,$$ thus proving what we want.
We have $$y_i=\frac{\left(\ln x_i\right)^N}{x_i^\delta}=\frac{\left(i \ln 2\right)^N}{2^{\delta i}}.$$ This means that the ratio between two consecutive $y_i$ terms is $$\frac{y_{i+1}}{y_i}=\frac{\left(\frac{i+1}i\right)^N}{2^\delta}.$$ As $i\to\infty$, this ratio tends to $\frac1{2^\delta}<1$. Therefore, $y_i$ tends to zero, as we wanted.
In reality, this is slightly incomplete, as we didn’t prove that the limit exists, we just found its value given that it did. However, the argument can easily be adapted; we can prove that $\frac{\left(\ln 2^x\right)^N}{2^{x\delta}}$ is decreasing for large enough $x$ in almost the same manner. With this, the limit is formally established. $\blacksquare$