The following question is a bit vague, but maybe someone can help me to make this more precise (and maybe even give an answer).
Consider the following two situations:
- On the 2-cateogry $\mathrm{Cat}$ of categories, functors and natural transformations we have a 2-functor $\mathrm{op} \colon \mathrm{Cat} \to \mathrm{Cat}^{\mathrm{co}}$, where $\mathrm{Cat}^{\mathrm{co}}$ denotes the 2-category $\mathrm{Cat}$ with the direction of natural transformations reversed. Generally, we might be interested in contravariant functors, which consists of a pair of categories $(A,B)$ and a functor $F \colon A \to B^\mathrm{op}$. But now $A$ is an object of $\mathrm{Cat}$, while $B$ is an object of $\mathrm{Cat}^\mathrm{op}$. So how can we talk about a morphism between objects of different 2-categories?
- On the category $\mathrm{Vect}$ of real vector spaces we have a functor ${}^* \colon \mathrm{Vect} \to \mathrm{Vect}^\mathrm{op}$ mapping vector spaces to their duals. Interesting additional structure on a vector space is given by an inner product, which is equivalently a linear map $V \to V^*$. But now $V$ is an object in $\mathrm{Vect}$, while $V^*$ is an object in $\mathrm{Vect}^\mathrm{op}$. Again, how can we talk about morphisms between objects of different categories?
The obvious answer is that $\mathrm{Vect}$ and $\mathrm{Vect}^\mathrm{op}$ share the same class of objects. And $\mathrm{Cat}$ and $\mathrm{Cat}^\mathrm{co}$ share the same objects and 1-morphisms. How can one encode this categorically? And even if we accept that, why do we, for example, treat $V^*$ as an object in $\mathrm{Vect}$ and not $V$ as in object in $\mathrm{Vect}^\mathrm{op}$?
If you put the op on the first variable things get less confusing. If you define the dual as a functor $^* : \text{Vect}^{op}\to \text{Vect}$, then the definition of the inner product is what it should be : a maps $V \to V^*$ in the category of vector spaces. This means that in $\text{Vect}^{op}$, an inner product is a map $V^*\to V$.
The same goes for the first part, if you put the $co$ on the domain of the $2$-functor $op$, you get that a contravariant functor is a $1$-morphism $F: A \to B^{op}$ in $\text{Cat}$, but here since this is also a $1$-morphism in $\text{Cat}^{co}$ it doesn't really matter.